Exercise 5.3Z: Analysis of the BSC Model
We consider two different BSC models with the following parameters:
- Model $M_1 \text{:} \hspace{0.4cm} p = 0.01$,
- Model $M_2 \text{:} \hspace{0.4cm} p = 0.02$.
The graph shows an error sequence of length $N = 1000$, but it is not known from which of the two models this sequence originates.
The two models are to be analyzed on the basis of
- the error distance probabilities
- $${\rm Pr}(a = k) = (1-p)^{k-1}\cdot p \hspace{0.05cm},$$
- the error distance distribution
- $$V_a(k) = {\rm Pr}(a \ge k) = (1-p)^{k-1}\hspace{0.05cm},$$
- the error correlation function
- $$\varphi_{e}(k) \hspace{-0.1cm} \ = \ \hspace{-0.1cm} {\rm E}\big[e_{\nu} \cdot e_{\nu + k}\big] \ \ = \ \ \left\{ \begin{array}{c} p \\ p^2 \end{array} \right.\quad \begin{array}{*{1}c} f{\rm or }\hspace{0.15cm}k = 0 \hspace{0.05cm}, \\ f{\rm or }\hspace{0.15cm} k \ne 0 \hspace{0.05cm}.\\ \end{array}$$
Notes:
- The exercise belongs to the chapter "Binary Symmetric Channel (BSC)".
- By counting, we would see that the error sequence of length $N = 1000$ contains exactly $22$ ones.
Questions
Solution
- For the error correlation function and the error distance distribution are valid
- $$\varphi_{e}(k) = \left\{ \begin{array}{c} p \\ p^2 \end{array} \right.\quad \begin{array}{*{1}c} f{\rm or }\hspace{0.15cm}k = 0 \hspace{0.05cm}, \\ f{\rm or }\hspace{0.15cm} k \ne 0 \hspace{0.05cm},\\ \end{array} \hspace{0.4cm}V_a(k) = (1-p)^{k-1}\hspace{0.05cm}.$$
- $p$ can be determined from all the given characteristics, except $V_a(k = 1)$. This EDD value is independent of $p$ equal to $(1–p)^0 = 1$.
- Therefore, the solutions 1, 2, 4 and 5 are correct.
(2) The relative error frequency of the given sequence is equal to $h_{\rm F} = 22/1000 \approx 0.022$.
- It is quite obvious that the error sequence was generated by the model $M_2$ ⇒ $p_{\rm M} = 0.02$.
- Because of the short sequence, $h_{\rm F}$ does not match $p_{\rm M}$ exactly, but at least approximates ⇒ solution 2.
(3) The mean error distance – that is, the expected value of the random variable $a$ – is equal to the inverse of the mean error probability ⇒ ${\rm E}\big[a\big] = 1/0.1 \ \underline {= 10}$.
(4) According to the equation ${\rm Pr}(a = k) = (1–p)^{k–1} \cdot p$ we obtain:
- $${\rm Pr}(a = 1) \hspace{0.15cm}\underline {= 0.1}\hspace{0.05cm},$$
- $${\rm Pr}(a = 2) = 0.9 \cdot 0.1 \hspace{0.15cm}\underline {= 0.09}\hspace{0.05cm},$$
- $${\rm Pr}(a = {\rm E}[a]) \hspace{-0.1cm} \ = \ \hspace{-0.1cm} {\rm Pr}(a = 10)= 0.9^9 \cdot 0.1 \hspace{0.15cm}\underline {= 0.0387}\hspace{0.05cm}.$$
(5) From the relation $V_a(k) = (1–p)^{k–1}$ we obtain
- $$V_a(k = 2) \hspace{-0.1cm} \ = \ \hspace{-0.1cm} 0.9^1 \hspace{0.15cm}\underline {= 0.9 } \hspace{0.3cm} \Rightarrow \hspace{0.3cm}{\rm Pr}(a = 1) = V_a(k = 1) - V_a(k = 2) = 0.1\hspace{0.05cm},$$
- $$V_a(k = 10)\hspace{-0.1cm} \ = \ \hspace{-0.1cm} 0.9^9 \hspace{0.15cm}\underline {=0.3874}\hspace{0.05cm},\hspace{0.2cm}V_a(k = 11)= 0.9^{10} \hspace{0.15cm}\underline {=0.3487}.$$
To check in comparison with subtask (4):
- $${\rm Pr}(a = 10) = V_a(k = 10) - V_a(k = 11) = 0.3874 - 0.3487 {= 0.0387}\hspace{0.05cm}.$$